Hi everyone!
I am recently studing thermodynamics for rate-independent plasticity. Fundamental statement in this subject is that "in the rate-independent materials, dissipation function must be homogeneous of degree one in rate of internal variables "。I can't understand this statement! I am wondering that why dissipation function must be homogenerous of degree one in rate of interal variables(in the rate-independent materials)? Is it just a assumption? Or does it have a mathematical or physical justification? I spend a lot of time to think this problem, but with little success. I appreciate your kindness if anyone give me some comments or suggestion in this question!
Thank you!
Forums
Free Tags