Hi All :
I was wondering why some people prefer to use Non Local Model while some others use Implicit Gradient Model (which can be derived from Non Local Model) .
When implicit Gradient Model is itself derived from Non Local Model ,and its FE implimentation just involves an additional average to be calculated and what is the need to introduce gradient terms ??
Thanks Alot
Kapil
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To students of AM 105a:
On 26 October 2007, Albert Tsou sent in the following Q & A.
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In today's class of complex analysis, my co-instructor Scott Norris was lecturing on resonance. He mentioned a YouTube video of the Tacoma Narrows Bridge. Also instructive is the entry of the bridge on Wikipedia.
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